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The SC and the ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 | Paper - 1 | MCQs
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1. The Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act was enacted in which year?
a. 1987
b. 1988
c. 1989
d. 1990
2. What is the Act Number of the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989?
a. Act No. 31 of 1989
b. Act No. 32 of 1989
c. Act No. 33 of 1989
d. Act No. 34 of 1989
3. On which date was the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 enacted?
a. 26th January, 1989
b. 15th August, 1989
c. 11th September, 1989
d. 2nd October, 1989
4. The primary objective of the SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 is to:
a. Promote economic development of SCs and STs
b. Provide reservation in public employment
c. Prevent the commission of offences of atrocities against members of SCs and STs
d. Regulate inter-caste marriages
5. Apart from preventing atrocities, the SC/ST Act, 1989 specifically provides for:
a. Fast Track Courts only
b. Special Courts and Exclusive Special Courts for trial of offences
c. Lok Adalats
d. Gram Nyayalayas
6. Which of the following is expressly included as an objective of the SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989?
a. Punishment of public servants only
b. Relief and rehabilitation of victims of such offences
c. Reservation in private sector
d. Compulsory legal aid to all citizens
7. The expression “for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto” in the Act refers to:
a. Extension of reservation benefits
b. Inclusion of service rules
c. Ancillary and related provisions necessary to implement the Act
d. Automatic application of IPC provisions
8. The phrase “Be it enacted by Parliament in the Fortieth Year of the Republic of India” indicates:
a. Year of enforcement of the Constitution
b. Year of first amendment of the Act
c. Constitutional year in which Parliament enacted the law
d. Tenure of Parliament
9. The Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 was enacted by:
a. State Legislature
b. President of India
c. Supreme Court of India
d. Parliament of India
10. The SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 is best classified as:
a. Procedural law
b. Purely penal statute
c. Special social welfare legislation with penal provisions
d. Constitutional amendment
11. Section 1 of the SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 deals with:
a. Definitions
b. Punishment for offences
c. Short title, extent and commencement
d. Special Courts
12. According to Section 1(1), the short title of the Act is:
a. Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes Protection Act, 1989
b. Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Crimes) Act, 1989
c. Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989
d. SC/ST (Prevention of Offences) Act, 1989
13. The words “This Act may be called” in Section 1(1) indicate that:
a. The title is mandatory and cannot be altered
b. The title is directory in nature
c. The Act has more than one title
d. The title is optional for enforcement
14. According to Section 1(2), the SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 extends to:
a. Selected States only
b. Whole of India
c. Whole of India except Scheduled Areas
d. Union Territories only
15. The extent clause under Section 1(2) of the Act signifies that the Act applies to:
a. Only Central Government employees
b. Only offences under IPC
c. Entire territorial jurisdiction of India
d. Only notified areas
16. Section 1(3) of the SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 relates to:
a. Extent of the Act
b. Short title of the Act
c. Commencement of the Act
d. Objects of the Act
17. The SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 comes into force:
a. On the date of enactment
b. On 11th September, 1989
c. On such date as may be fixed by the State Government
d. On such date as the Central Government may appoint i.e 30th January, 1990
18. The authority empowered to appoint the date of commencement of the SC/ST Act, 1989 is:
a. State Government
b. Parliament
c. President of India
d. Central Government
19. The date of commencement of the SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 is appointed by:
a. Executive order
b. Notification in the Official Gazette
c. Resolution of Parliament
d. Judicial pronouncement
20. Section 2 of the SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 deals with:
a. Punishments
b. Special Courts
c. Definitions
d. Appeals
21. The definitions provided under Section 2 of the SC/ST Act apply:
a. Irrespective of context
b. Only to Chapter II
c. Unless the context otherwise requires
d. Only to criminal proceedings
22. According to Section 2(1)(a), the term “atrocity” means:
a. Any offence under the IPC
b. Any offence against SC/ST persons
c. An offence punishable under section 3 of the Act
d. An offence punishable with imprisonment only
23. Under Section 2(1)(b), the term “Code” refers to:
a. Indian Penal Code, 1860
b. Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
c. Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
d. Evidence Act, 1872
24. According to Section 2(1)(bb), “dependent” includes which of the following?
a. Only spouse and children of the victim
b. Only parents of the victim
c. Spouse, children, parents, brother and sister of the victim
d. All relatives of the victim
25. For a person to be treated as a “dependent” under the Act, such person must be:
a. Legally nominated by the victim
b. Entirely dependent on the victim
c. Wholly or mainly dependent on the victim for support and maintenance
d. Financially independent but emotionally reliant
26. The term “economic boycott” is defined under which clause of Section 2(1)?
a. Clause (bb)
b. Clause (bc)
c. Clause (bd)
d. Clause (be)
27. Refusal to deal with, work for hire, or do business with a person amounts to:
a. Social discrimination
b. Criminal intimidation
c. Economic boycott
d. Exploitation
28. Denial of opportunities including access to services or contractual opportunities for rendering service for consideration constitutes:
a. Civil wrong
b. Economic boycott
c. Labour dispute
d. Professional misconduct
29. Refusal to do anything on the terms on which things are commonly done in the ordinary course of business is covered under:
a. Atrocity
b. Abuse of power
c. Economic boycott
d. Criminal breach of trust
30. Abstaining from professional or business relations that one would normally maintain with another person amounts to:
a. Voluntary restraint
b. Economic boycott
c. Contractual default
d. Trade union activity
31. Which of the following is NOT a component of “economic boycott” under Section 2(1)(bc)?
a. Refusal to deal or do business
b. Denial of access to services
c. Abstention from professional relations
d. Physical exclusion from residence
32. The term “Exclusive Special Court” is defined and established under:
a. Section 2(1)(bc)
b. Section 2(1)(bd)
c. Section 14(1)
d. Section 20
33. The primary function of an Exclusive Special Court under the SC/ST Act is to:
a. Try all criminal cases
b. Try offences under the IPC only
c. Exclusively try offences under the SC/ST Act
d. Conduct summary trials
34. The definition of “forest rights” under the SC/ST Act is borrowed from:
a. Indian Forest Act, 1927
b. Wildlife Protection Act, 1972
c. Forest Conservation Act, 1980
d. Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006
35. “Forest rights” under the SC/ST Act has the meaning assigned under:
a. Section 2 of the Forest Rights Act, 2006
b. Section 3(1) of the Forest Rights Act, 2006
c. Section 4 of the Forest Rights Act, 2006
d. Section 5 of the Forest Rights Act, 2006
36. The term “manual scavenger” defined under section 2(bf) of the SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 derives its meaning from:
a. Indian Penal Code, 1860
b. Employment of Manual Scavengers Act, 1993
c. Prohibition of Employment as Manual Scavengers and their Rehabilitation Act, 2013
d. National Safai Karamcharis Commission Act, 1993
37. The definition of “manual scavenger” is borrowed from which provision?
a. Section 2(g) of the 2013 Act
b. Section 3 of the 2013 Act
c. Clause (g) of sub-section (1) of section 2 of the 2013 Act
d. Clause (h) of section 3 of the 2013 Act
38. Under Section 2(1)(bg), the expression “public servant” primarily refers to:
a. Only Central Government employees
b. Only State Government employees
c. A public servant as defined under section 21 of the IPC
d. Any elected representative
39. Apart from IPC section 21, “public servant” under the SC/ST Act also includes:
a. Any private individual
b. Only judicial officers
c. Any person deemed to be a public servant under any other law for the time being in force
d. Only police officers
40. A person acting in his official capacity under the Central or State Government is treated as:
a. Private employee
b. Contractual agent
c. Public servant
d. Government nominee only
41. The definition of “Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes” defined under section 2(c) of the SC/ST Act is derived from:
a. Articles 15 and 16 of the Constitution
b. Articles 330 and 332 of the Constitution
c. Article 366 clauses (24) and (25) of the Constitution
d. Article 338 of the Constitution
42. Clause (24) and clause (25) of Article 366 of the Constitution define respectively:
a. SC and OBC
b. ST and OBC
c. SC and ST
d. Backward classes
43. Under Section 2(1)(d), a “Special Court” means:
a. Any criminal court
b. Magistrate Court
c. A Court of Session specified as a Special Court under section 14
d. A Fast Track Court
44. The term “Special Public Prosecutor” defined under section 2(e) of the SC/ST Act refers to:
a. Any Public Prosecutor
b. A Public Prosecutor specified as such or an advocate referred to in section 15
c. A Government Advocate only
d. A private counsel appointed by the victim
45. Under Section 2(1)(ea), the term “Schedule” refers to:
a. Schedule of offences under IPC
b. Schedule appended to CrPC
c. Schedule appended to this Act
d. Constitutional Schedule
46. “Social boycott” under the SC/ST Act includes which of the following?
a. Physical eviction only
b. Refusal to permit customary services or abstention from social relations
c. Criminal intimidation
d. Economic monopoly
47. Isolation of a person from others amounts to:
a. Economic boycott
b. Social boycott
c. Criminal conspiracy
d. Civil wrong
48. The term “victim” defined under section (ec) the SC/ST Act refers to:
a. Any complainant
b. Any individual belonging to SC/ST who has suffered harm due to an offence under the Act
c. Any person affected indirectly
d. Any witness
49. Harm suffered by a victim under the Act may be:
a. Physical only
b. Physical and monetary only
c. Physical, mental, psychological, emotional or monetary, including harm to property
d. Mental only
50. The definition of “victim” under the Act includes:
a. Victim alone
b. Victim and witnesses
c. Victim, relatives, legal guardian and legal heirs
d. Victim and public servants
51. A “witness” under the SC/ST Act is a person who:
a. Has filed the FIR
b. Is acquainted with facts or possesses information necessary for investigation, inquiry or trial
c. Is examined only in court
d. Is a police officer only
52. A victim of an offence under the SC/ST Act is also treated as:
a. Accused
b. Informant
c. Witness
d. Approver
53. Words and expressions not defined in the SC/ST Act but defined in IPC, Evidence Act or CrPC shall:
a. Have ordinary dictionary meanings
b. Be ignored
c. Have meanings assigned under those enactments
d. Be interpreted by courts independently
54. Section 2(2) of the SC/ST Act deals with:
a. Punishment
b. Definitions
c. Reference to enactments not in force in an area
d. Appeal procedure
55. If a provision referred to in the SC/ST Act is not in force in a particular area, the reference shall be construed as:
a. Void
b. Inapplicable
c. Reference to the corresponding law in force in that area
d. Reference to Central law only
56. Section 2(2) ensures that the Act remains effective in areas governed by:
a. Customary law only
b. No criminal law
c. Corresponding local laws
d. Judicial precedents
57. Section 3 of the SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 applies when the accused is
a. A member of a Scheduled Caste
b. A member of a Scheduled Tribe
c. Not a member of a Scheduled Caste or a Scheduled Tribe
d. Any public servant
58. Putting any inedible or obnoxious substance into the mouth of a member of a Scheduled Caste or Scheduled Tribe is punishable under
a. Section 3(1)(a)
b. Section 3(1)(b)
c. Section 3(1)(c)
d. Section 3(2)
59. Forcing a member of a Scheduled Caste or Scheduled Tribe to drink or eat an inedible or obnoxious substance constitutes an offence under
a. Section 3(1)(a)
b. Section 3(1)(d)
c. Section 3(1)(e)
d. Section 3(1)(g)
60. Dumping excreta, sewage, carcasses or any other obnoxious substance in the premises occupied by a member of a Scheduled Caste or Scheduled Tribe is punishable under
a. Section 3(1)(a)
b. Section 3(1)(b)
c. Section 3(1)(c)
d. Section 3(1)(f)
61. Dumping obnoxious substances at the entrance of the premises occupied by a member of a Scheduled Caste or Scheduled Tribe falls under
a. Section 3(1)(b)
b. Section 3(1)(c)
c. Section 3(1)(d)
d. Section 3(1)(g)
62. Dumping excreta or waste matter in the neighbourhood of a member of a Scheduled Caste or Scheduled Tribe with intent to cause injury, insult or annoyance is punishable under
a. Section 3(1)(b)
b. Section 3(1)(c)
c. Section 3(1)(e)
d. Section 3(1)(g)
63. Which of the following intents is specifically required for an offence under Section 3(1)(c)?
a. Intent to dispossess
b. Intent to defraud
c. Intent to cause injury, insult or annoyance
d. Intent to unlawfully gain property
64. Garlanding a member of a Scheduled Caste or Scheduled Tribe with footwear constitutes an offence under
a. Section 3(1)(c)
b. Section 3(1)(d)
c. Section 3(1)(e)
d. Section 3(1)(g)
65. Parading naked or semi-naked a member of a Scheduled Caste or Scheduled Tribe is punishable under
a. Section 3(1)(d)
b. Section 3(1)(e)
c. Section 3(1)(f)
d. Section 3(1)(g)
66. Forcible removal of clothes of a member of a Scheduled Caste or Scheduled Tribe is covered under
a. Section 3(1)(d)
b. Section 3(1)(e)
c. Section 3(1)(f)
d. Section 3(1)(g)
67. Forcible tonsuring of head of a member of a Scheduled Caste or Scheduled Tribe is an offence under
a. Section 3(1)(d)
b. Section 3(1)(e)
c. Section 3(1)(f)
d. Section 3(1)(g)
68. Removing moustaches or painting the face or body of a member of a Scheduled Caste or Scheduled Tribe in a derogatory manner falls under
a. Section 3(1)(c)
b. Section 3(1)(d)
c. Section 3(1)(e)
d. Section 3(1)(f)
69. The acts covered under Section 3(1)(e) must be
a. Economically motivated
b. Publicly performed
c. Derogatory to human dignity
d. Done by public servants only
70. Wrongful occupation or cultivation of land owned by a member of a Scheduled Caste or Scheduled Tribe is punishable under
a. Section 3(1)(e)
b. Section 3(1)(f)
c. Section 3(1)(g)
d. Section 3(2)
71. Getting land transferred which is owned by or allotted to a member of a Scheduled Caste or Scheduled Tribe constitutes an offence under
a. Section 3(1)(f)
b. Section 3(1)(g)
c. Section 3(1)(d)
d. Section 3(1)(c)
72. Wrongful dispossession of a member of a Scheduled Caste or Scheduled Tribe from his land or premises is punishable under
a. Section 3(1)(f)
b. Section 3(1)(g)
c. Section 3(1)(e)
d. Section 3(1)(b)
73. Interference with enjoyment of forest rights of a member of a Scheduled Caste or Scheduled Tribe falls under
a. Section 3(1)(f)
b. Section 3(1)(g)
c. Section 3(1)(e)
d. Section 3(1)(c)
74. Destruction of crops belonging to a member of a Scheduled Caste or Scheduled Tribe is covered under
a. Section 3(1)(f)
b. Section 3(1)(g)
c. Section 3(1)(e)
d. Section 3(1)(d)
75. For the purposes of Section 3(1)(f) and 3(1)(g), the expression “wrongfully” includes acts done
a. Only against the person’s will
b. Only without consent
c. With consent obtained by fear of death or hurt
d. All of the above
76. Fabricating records of land for wrongful occupation or dispossession is deemed to be included within the expression
a. Consent
b. Wrongful intention
c. Wrongfully
d. Fraud
77. Making a member of a Scheduled Caste or Scheduled Tribe to do “begar” or other forms of forced or bonded labour is punishable under
a. Section 3(1)(g)
b. Section 3(1)(h)
c. Section 3(1)(i)
d. Section 3(1)(j)
78. Which of the following is expressly excluded from the offence under Section 3(1)(h)?
a. Forced labour by private individuals
b. Bonded labour under customary practice
c. Compulsory service for public purposes imposed by the Government
d. Labour imposed by village elders
79. Compelling a member of a Scheduled Caste or Scheduled Tribe to carry human or animal carcasses constitutes an offence under
a. Section 3(1)(h)
b. Section 3(1)(i)
c. Section 3(1)(j)
d. Section 3(1)(k)
80. Digging graves by force by a member of a Scheduled Caste or Scheduled Tribe is punishable under
a. Section 3(1)(h)
b. Section 3(1)(i)
c. Section 3(1)(j)
d. Section 3(1)(p)
81. Making a member of a Scheduled Caste or Scheduled Tribe to do manual scavenging is an offence under
a. Section 3(1)(i)
b. Section 3(1)(j)
c. Section 3(1)(h)
d. Section 3(1)(k)
82. Employing or permitting the employment of a member of a Scheduled Caste or Scheduled Tribe for manual scavenging is punishable under
a. Section 3(1)(j)
b. Section 3(1)(i)
c. Section 3(1)(h)
d. Section 3(1)(g)
83. Dedicating a Scheduled Caste or Scheduled Tribe woman to a deity as a devadasi constitutes an offence under
a. Section 3(1)(j)
b. Section 3(1)(k)
c. Section 3(1)(l)
d. Section 3(1)(m)
84. Which of the following acts is covered under Section 3(1)(k)?
a. Religious conversion
b. Forced temple service
c. Devadasi or similar dedication practices
d. Denial of temple entry
85. Forcing a member of a Scheduled Caste or Scheduled Tribe not to vote in an election is punishable under
a. Section 3(1)(k)
b. Section 3(1)(l)(A)
c. Section 3(1)(m)
d. Section 3(1)(o)
86. Compelling a member of a Scheduled Caste or Scheduled Tribe to vote for a particular candidate falls under
a. Section 3(1)(l)(A)
b. Section 3(1)(l)(B)
c. Section 3(1)(m)
d. Section 3(1)(n)
87. Preventing a member of a Scheduled Caste or Scheduled Tribe from filing a nomination as a candidate in an election is punishable under
a. Section 3(1)(l)(A)
b. Section 3(1)(l)(B)
c. Section 3(1)(l)(C)
d. Section 3(1)(m)
88. Preventing a member of a Scheduled Caste or Scheduled Tribe from proposing or seconding a nomination in an election is covered under
a. Section 3(1)(l)(A)
b. Section 3(1)(l)(B)
c. Section 3(1)(l)(C)
d. Section 3(1)(o)
89. Obstructing a Scheduled Caste or Scheduled Tribe Panchayat member from performing official duties is punishable under
a. Section 3(1)(l)
b. Section 3(1)(m)
c. Section 3(1)(n)
d. Section 3(1)(o)
90. Section 3(1)(m) applies to members or office holders of
a. Legislative Assemblies only
b. Parliament only
c. Panchayats and Municipalities
d. Cooperative societies
91. After the poll, causing hurt or grievous hurt to a member of a Scheduled Caste or Scheduled Tribe is punishable under
a. Section 3(1)(m)
b. Section 3(1)(n)
c. Section 3(1)(o)
d. Section 3(1)(p)
92. Threatening to impose social or economic boycott after elections on a member of a Scheduled Caste or Scheduled Tribe falls under
a. Section 3(1)(l)
b. Section 3(1)(m)
c. Section 3(1)(n)
d. Section 3(1)(o)
93. Preventing a member of a Scheduled Caste or Scheduled Tribe from availing benefits of a public service due to him after the poll is covered under
a. Section 3(1)(n)
b. Section 3(1)(m)
c. Section 3(1)(o)
d. Section 3(1)(p)
94. Committing an offence against a member of a Scheduled Caste or Scheduled Tribe for having voted or not voted for a particular candidate is punishable under
a. Section 3(1)(n)
b. Section 3(1)(o)
c. Section 3(1)(l)
d. Section 3(1)(m)
95. Instituting a false, malicious or vexatious suit against a member of a Scheduled Caste or Scheduled Tribe constitutes an offence under
a. Section 3(1)(o)
b. Section 3(1)(n)
c. Section 3(1)(p)
d. Section 3(2)
96. Section 3(1)(p) criminalises
a. Legitimate civil proceedings
b. Criminal proceedings with court permission
c. False, malicious or vexatious legal proceedings
d. Administrative complaints
97. Giving false or frivolous information to a public servant resulting in injury or annoyance to a member of a Scheduled Caste or Scheduled Tribe is punishable under
a. Section 3(1)(p)
b. Section 3(1)(q)
c. Section 3(1)(r)
d. Section 3(1)(s)
98. For an offence under Section 3(1)(q), the false information must cause a public servant to
a. Abuse his power unlawfully
b. Use his lawful power
c. Act without jurisdiction
d. Refuse to act
99. Intentionally insulting or intimidating a member of a Scheduled Caste or Scheduled Tribe with intent to humiliate is punishable when it occurs
a. In private
b. At the victim’s residence only
c. In any place within public view
d. Only inside government premises
100. Section 3(1)(r) requires which of the following elements?
a. Physical injury
b. Use of caste name
c. Intent to humiliate
d. Economic loss
101. Abusing a member of a Scheduled Caste or Scheduled Tribe by caste name is punishable when done
a. In writing only
b. In public meetings only
c. In any place within public view
d. Only through electronic means
102. The offence of caste-based abuse by name is specifically covered under
a. Section 3(1)(r)
b. Section 3(1)(s)
c. Section 3(1)(u)
d. Section 3(1)(v)
103. Destroying or defiling an object held sacred by members of the Scheduled Castes or Scheduled Tribes is punishable under
a. Section 3(1)(s)
b. Section 3(1)(t)
c. Section 3(1)(u)
d. Section 3(1)(v)
104. For the purposes of Section 3(1)(t), the expression “object” includes
a. Only religious idols
b. Temples and mosques
c. Statues, photographs and portraits
d. Historical documents only
105. Promoting feelings of enmity, hatred or ill-will against members of the Scheduled Castes or Scheduled Tribes by words or signs is punishable under
a. Section 3(1)(t)
b. Section 3(1)(u)
c. Section 3(1)(v)
d. Section 3(1)(w)
106. Section 3(1)(u) applies to promotion of hatred through
a. Spoken words only
b. Written words only
c. Visible representations only
d. Any means including words, signs or representations
107. Disrespecting a late person held in high esteem by members of the Scheduled Castes or Scheduled Tribes is punishable under
a. Section 3(1)(u)
b. Section 3(1)(v)
c. Section 3(1)(t)
d. Section 3(1)(s)
108. Section 3(1)(v) applies specifically to
a. Living community leaders
b. Religious institutions
c. Late persons held in high esteem
d. Public servants
109. Intentionally touching a woman belonging to a Scheduled Caste or Scheduled Tribe in a sexual manner without consent is punishable under
a. Section 3(1)(w)(i)
b. Section 3(1)(w)(ii)
c. Section 3(1)(r)
d. Section 3(2)
110. For an offence under Section 3(1)(w), the accused must have knowledge that
a. The act is illegal
b. The woman belongs to a Scheduled Caste or Scheduled Tribe
c. The act is punishable under IPC
d. The woman is a public servant
111. Using words, acts or gestures of a sexual nature towards a Scheduled Caste or Scheduled Tribe woman is punishable under
a. Section 3(1)(w)(i)
b. Section 3(1)(w)(ii)
c. Section 3(1)(u)
d. Section 3(1)(r)
112. For the purposes of Section 3(1)(w)(i), “consent” means
a. Mere absence of resistance
b. Past sexual relationship
c. Unequivocal voluntary agreement
d. Silence of the woman
113. A woman belonging to a Scheduled Caste or Scheduled Tribe who does not physically resist a sexual act
a. Is deemed to have consented
b. Is presumed to have consented
c. Is not regarded as consenting by that fact alone
d. Is deemed to have waived the offence
114. Under Section 3(1)(w), a woman’s sexual history
a. May be considered for mitigation
b. Implies consent
c. May reduce punishment
d. Shall not imply consent or mitigate the offence
115. Corrupting or fouling the water of a spring, reservoir or other source ordinarily used by members of the Scheduled Castes or Scheduled Tribes is punishable under
a. Section 3(1)(w)
b. Section 3(1)(x)
c. Section 3(1)(y)
d. Section 3(1)(za)
116. For an offence under Section 3(1)(x), the water source must be
a. Government-owned only
b. Used exclusively by Scheduled Castes or Scheduled Tribes
c. Ordinarily used by members of Scheduled Castes or Scheduled Tribes
d. Used for religious purposes only
117. Denial of customary right of passage to a place of public resort to a member of a Scheduled Caste or Scheduled Tribe is punishable under
a. Section 3(1)(x)
b. Section 3(1)(y)
c. Section 3(1)(z)
d. Section 3(1)(za)
118. Obstructing access to a place of public resort to which other members of the public have a right to access constitutes an offence under
a. Section 3(1)(y)
b. Section 3(1)(z)
c. Section 3(1)(za)
d. Section 3(1)(zb)
119. Forcing a member of a Scheduled Caste or Scheduled Tribe to leave his house, village or place of residence is punishable under
a. Section 3(1)(y)
b. Section 3(1)(z)
c. Section 3(1)(za)
d. Section 3(1)(zc)
120. The proviso to Section 3(1)(z) excludes
a. Judicial orders
b. Administrative convenience
c. Action taken in discharge of a public duty
d. Police investigation
121. Obstructing a member of a Scheduled Caste or Scheduled Tribe from using common property resources is punishable under
a. Section 3(1)(y)
b. Section 3(1)(z)
c. Section 3(1)(za)(A)
d. Section 3(1)(zb)
122. Preventing access to burial or cremation grounds equally with others is covered under
a. Section 3(1)(za)(A)
b. Section 3(1)(za)(B)
c. Section 3(1)(za)(C)
d. Section 3(1)(za)(D)
123. Obstructing a member of a Scheduled Caste or Scheduled Tribe from riding a bicycle or wearing footwear in public places is punishable under
a. Section 3(1)(za)(A)
b. Section 3(1)(za)(B)
c. Section 3(1)(za)(C)
d. Section 3(1)(za)(E)
124. Preventing a Scheduled Caste or Scheduled Tribe member from taking out a wedding procession or mounting a horse during such procession is covered under
a. Section 3(1)(za)(A)
b. Section 3(1)(za)(B)
c. Section 3(1)(za)(C)
d. Section 3(1)(z)
125. Preventing entry into a place of worship open to the public is punishable under
a. Section 3(1)(za)(A)
b. Section 3(1)(za)(B)
c. Section 3(1)(za)(C)
d. Section 3(1)(za)(D)
126. Obstructing access to an educational institution, hospital or shop is punishable under
a. Section 3(1)(za)(B)
b. Section 3(1)(za)(C)
c. Section 3(1)(za)(D)
d. Section 3(1)(za)(E)
127. Preventing the use of utensils or articles meant for public use is punishable under
a. Section 3(1)(za)(A)
b. Section 3(1)(za)(D)
c. Section 3(1)(za)(E)
d. Section 3(1)(y)
128. Obstructing a member of a Scheduled Caste or Scheduled Tribe from practising any profession or carrying on any trade is punishable under
a. Section 3(1)(za)(C)
b. Section 3(1)(za)(D)
c. Section 3(1)(za)(E)
d. Section 3(1)(z)
129. Causing physical harm or mental agony on the allegation of practising witchcraft is punishable under
a. Section 3(1)(za)
b. Section 3(1)(zb)
c. Section 3(1)(zc)
d. Section 3(1)(x)
130. Alleging that a member of a Scheduled Caste or Scheduled Tribe is a witch and causing mental agony attracts liability under
a. Section 3(1)(y)
b. Section 3(1)(z)
c. Section 3(1)(zb)
d. Section 3(1)(zc)
131. Imposing or threatening a social or economic boycott of a person or family belonging to a Scheduled Caste or Scheduled Tribe is punishable under
a. Section 3(1)(n)
b. Section 3(1)(za)
c. Section 3(1)(zb)
d. Section 3(1)(zc)
132. The minimum punishment for offences under clauses (x) to (zc) of Section 3(1) is
a. Three months imprisonment
b. Six months imprisonment
c. One year imprisonment
d. Two years imprisonment
133. The maximum punishment for offences under clauses (x) to (zc) of Section 3(1) may extend to
a. Three years
b. Five years
c. Seven years
d. Life imprisonment
134. Section 3(2) applies only when the offender is
a. Any person
b. A public servant only
c. A member of Scheduled Caste or Scheduled Tribe
d. A person not being a member of a Scheduled Caste or Scheduled Tribe
135. Giving or fabricating false evidence to cause conviction of a Scheduled Caste or Scheduled Tribe member for a capital offence is punishable with
a. Death or life imprisonment
b. Life imprisonment and fine
c. Seven years imprisonment and fine
d. Ten years imprisonment and fine
136. If an innocent Scheduled Caste or Scheduled Tribe member is convicted and executed due to false evidence fabricated under Section 3(2)(i), the punishment shall be
a. Life imprisonment
b. Imprisonment for ten years
c. Death
d. Rigorous imprisonment for seven years
137. False evidence intended to cause conviction for a non-capital offence punishable with seven years or more attracts punishment under
a. Section 3(2)(i)
b. Section 3(2)(ii)
c. Section 3(2)(v)
d. Section 3(2)(vi)
138. The minimum punishment under Section 3(2)(ii) is
a. Three months
b. Six months
c. One year
d. Two years
139. Mischief by fire or explosive substance causing damage to property belonging to a Scheduled Caste or Scheduled Tribe is punishable under
a. Section 3(2)(ii)
b. Section 3(2)(iii)
c. Section 3(2)(iv)
d. Section 3(2)(v)
140. Destruction by fire or explosive substance of a building used as a place of worship or dwelling of a Scheduled Caste or Scheduled Tribe member is punishable with
a. Seven years imprisonment
b. Ten years imprisonment
c. Life imprisonment and fine
d. Death
141. Section 3(2)(iv) applies when the building destroyed is
a. Any government building
b. Commercial property
c. Ordinarily used as worship, dwelling or custody of property
d. Used temporarily for residence
142. Commission of an IPC offence punishable with ten years or more against a Scheduled Caste or Scheduled Tribe person or property attracts punishment under
a. Section 3(1)
b. Section 3(2)(iv)
c. Section 3(2)(v)
d. Section 3(2)(va)
143. Knowledge that the victim belongs to a Scheduled Caste or Scheduled Tribe is
a. Irrelevant under Section 3(2)(v)
b. Presumed automatically
c. A mandatory ingredient
d. Required only for public servants
144. The punishment under Section 3(2)(v) is
a. Punishment prescribed under IPC
b. Seven years imprisonment
c. Life imprisonment and fine
d. Death or life imprisonment
145. Section 3(2)(va) deals with
a. Capital offences only
b. Offences punishable with ten years or more
c. Scheduled offences specified in the Schedule
d. Minor IPC offences
146. Under Section 3(2)(va), punishment shall be
a. Life imprisonment only
b. As prescribed under IPC for such offence along with fine
c. Double the IPC punishment
d. Minimum seven years imprisonment
147. Causing disappearance of evidence of an offence under this Chapter to screen the offender attracts punishment under
a. Section 3(2)(ii)
b. Section 3(2)(v)
c. Section 3(2)(vi)
d. Section 3(2)(vii)
148. The punishment under Section 3(2)(vi) shall be
a. Half of the original offence
b. Punishment provided for that offence
c. Maximum seven years
d. One year imprisonment
149. Giving false information knowing it to be false to screen an offender is covered under
a. Section 3(2)(v)
b. Section 3(2)(vi)
c. Section 3(2)(vii)
d. Section 3(1)(p)
150. When a public servant commits any offence under Section 3, punishment shall be
a. Same as ordinary offender
b. Death
c. Minimum one year imprisonment
d. Only departmental action
151. The maximum punishment for a public servant under Section 3(2)(vii) may extend to
a. Seven years
b. Ten years
c. Life imprisonment
d. Punishment provided for that offence
152. Section 3(2)(vii) applies only when the offender is
a. A police officer
b. Any government employee
c. A public servant
d. A judicial officer
153. Section 4 of the SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 deals with:
a. Punishment for offenders committing atrocities
b. Punishment for neglect of duties by public servants
c. Property forfeiture
d. Preventive action by law and order machinery
154. Under Section 4(1), a public servant who is not a member of SC/ST and wilfully neglects his duties under the Act shall be punishable with:
a. Fine only
b. Imprisonment for a term of not less than six months but may extend to one year
c. Death penalty
d. Community service
155. Duties of a public servant under Section 4(2) include:
a. Reading out to an informant the information recorded by the police before taking signature
b. Registering FIRs or complaints under this Act
c. Furnishing a copy of the recorded information to the informant
d. Recording statements of victims or witnesses
e. All of the above
156. Under Section 4, charges against a public servant for dereliction of duty shall be booked:
a. Automatically by the police
b. On the recommendation of an administrative enquiry
c. Only after approval of the High Court
d. Only after a complaint by a victim
157. Cognizance of neglect of duty by a public servant under Section 4(3) shall be taken by:
a. Any civil court
b. The Special Court or the Exclusive Special Court
c. Only the State Government
d. Police officer in charge
158. Section 5 of the SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 deals with:
a. Punishment for public servants
b. Enhanced punishment on subsequent conviction
c. Special Courts
d. Preventive detention
159. Section 5 applies to a person who has:
a. Been accused of an offence under the Act
b. Been acquitted under the Act
c. Already been convicted of an offence under this Chapter
d. Filed a complaint under the Act
160. Enhanced punishment under Section 5 is attracted when a person is convicted:
a. For the first offence
b. Only for the second offence
c. For the second offence or any offence subsequent to the second offence
d. Only after three convictions
161. The expression “offence under this Chapter” in Section 5 refers to:
a. Any offence under IPC
b. Any offence under CrPC
c. Offences under Chapter II of the SC/ST Act
d. Offences under Special Courts Act
162. The minimum punishment prescribed under Section 5 is:
a. Six months imprisonment
b. One year imprisonment
c. Two years imprisonment
d. No minimum prescribed
163. The words “shall not be less than one year” indicate that the minimum punishment under Section 5 is:
a. Discretionary
b. Directory
c. Mandatory
d. Advisory
164. The maximum punishment under Section 5 may extend to:
a. Life imprisonment
b. Seven years imprisonment
c. Punishment provided for that offence
d. Double the punishment prescribed
165. Section 5 enhances punishment by:
a. Creating a new offence
b. Increasing fine only
c. Prescribing a higher minimum sentence on repeat conviction
d. Providing compulsory life imprisonment
166. Section 6 of the SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 deals with:
a. Punishment for offences
b. Application of certain provisions of the Indian Penal Code
c. Trial by Special Courts
d. Appeals and revision
167. The application of IPC provisions under Section 6 of the SC/ST Act is:
a. Absolute and unconditional
b. Subject to other provisions of this Act
c. Subject to CrPC only
d. Subject to State Government rules
168. Which of the following IPC provisions is expressly made applicable under Section 6?
a. Section 107 IPC
b. Section 120B IPC, chapter 3, 4 and 149
c. provisions of section 34, Chapter III, Chapter IV, Chapter V, Chapter VA, section 149 and Chapter XXIII
d. Section 300 IPC
169. The IPC provisions mentioned in Section 6 apply for the purposes of the SC/ST Act:
a. Exactly in the same manner without modification
b. Only to procedural matters
c. So far as may be, as they apply for the purposes of the IPC
d. Only when expressly mentioned in offences
170. The phrase “so far as may be” in Section 6 indicates that:
a. IPC provisions apply rigidly
b. IPC provisions apply with necessary adaptations
c. IPC provisions override the SC/ST Act
d. IPC provisions apply only with State approval
171. Section 7 of the SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 deals with:
a. Attachment of property by police
b. Forfeiture of property of certain persons
c. Confiscation of proceeds of crime
d. Civil liability of accused
172. Section 7(1) applies when a person has been:
a. Accused of an offence
b. Charged with an offence
c. Convicted of an offence punishable under this Chapter
d. Arrested for an offence
173. The authority competent to order forfeiture of property under Section 7(1) is:
a. District Magistrate
b. State Government
c. Special Court
d. Police Officer
174. Under Section 7(1), forfeiture of property may be ordered:
a. In lieu of punishment
b. Only if no punishment is awarded
c. In addition to awarding any punishment
d. Only when fine is imposed
175. An order of forfeiture under Section 7(1) must be:
a. Oral
b. By notification
c. By order in writing
d. By executive instruction
176. Property liable to forfeiture under Section 7(1) includes:
a. Immovable property only
b. Movable property only
c. Movable or immovable or both
d. Property of relatives
177. Forfeiture under Section 7(1) applies to property which:
a. Is acquired illegally
b. Belongs to the Government
c. Has been used for the commission of the offence
d. Is mentioned in the charge-sheet
178. Upon forfeiture under Section 7(1), the property shall stand forfeited to:
a. Victim
b. State Government
c. Central Government
d. Government
179. Section 7(2) applies at which stage of proceedings?
a. After acquittal
b. During investigation only
c. During the period of trial
d. After appeal
180. Under Section 7(2), when a person is accused of an offence under this Chapter, the Special Court may:
a. Confiscate property immediately
b. Attach all or any property during trial
c. Permanently forfeit property
d. Sell property by auction
181. The attachment of property under Section 7(2) is:
a. Mandatory
b. Automatic
c. Discretionary
d. Time-barred
182. If the trial under Section 7(2) ends in conviction, the property attached shall be:
a. Released immediately
b. Returned to the accused
c. Liable to forfeiture
d. Destroyed
183. The forfeiture of attached property after conviction under Section 7(2) is limited to:
a. Entire value of the property
b. Value of compensation
c. Extent required for realisation of any fine imposed
d. Market value at the time of offence
184. Section 7 makes a clear distinction between:
a. Civil and criminal liability
b. Attachment during trial and forfeiture after conviction
c. Police and judicial powers
d. Movable and immovable property only
185. Forfeiture under Section 7(1) is linked to property:
a. Owned by the accused
b. Used in the commission of the offence
c. Purchased after conviction
d. Attached during investigation
186. Which of the following correctly states the position under Section 7?
a. Property can be forfeited without conviction
b. Property can be attached only after conviction
c. Property may be attached during trial and forfeited after conviction
d. Property can be forfeited only by Government
187. Section 8 of the SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 deals with:
a. Cognizance of offences
b. Presumption as to offences
c. Burden of proof on prosecution
d. Compoundability of offences
188. Section 8 applies in which of the following situations?
a. Any criminal prosecution
b. Civil proceedings
c. Prosecution for an offence under this Chapter
d. Proceedings under CrPC only
189. The presumptions under Section 8 operate when it is:
a. Alleged
b. Reasonably suspected
c. Proved
d. Confessed
190. Under Section 8(a), if the accused rendered financial assistance in relation to an offence, the Special Court shall presume that the accused had:
a. Conspired to commit the offence
b. Attempted the offence
c. Abetted the offence
d. Benefited from the offence
191. Financial assistance under Section 8(a) must be in relation to offences committed by a person who is:
a. Convicted of the offence
b. Acquitted of the offence
c. Accused of or reasonably suspected of committing the offence
d. Arrested only
192. The presumption under Section 8(a) is rebuttable because it operates:
a. Automatically
b. Without proof
c. Unless the contrary is proved
d. Only on confession
193. The authority required to draw the presumption under Section 8(a) is the:
a. Magistrate
b. High Court
c. Special Court
d. Investigating Officer
194. Section 8(b) applies where an offence under this Chapter is committed by:
a. A single individual
b. A public servant
c. A group of persons
d. A habitual offender
195. For the presumption under Section 8(b) to arise, it must be proved that the offence was a sequel to:
a. Political rivalry
b. Personal enmity only
c. Existing dispute regarding land or any other matter
d. Economic boycott
196. Under Section 8(b), the offence shall be presumed to have been committed:
a. Accidentally
b. In self-defence
c. In furtherance of common intention or in prosecution of common object
d. Without mens rea
197. Section 8(b) incorporates principles similar to which IPC provisions?
a. Sections 107 and 109
b. Sections 120A and 120B
c. Sections 34 and 149
d. Sections 96 to 106